Manchester City legend Kevin De Bruyne is expected to make a decision on his next club in the coming days, as he weighs up significant offers from both European and Major League Soccer (MLS) suitors.
The Belgian maestro recently played his final home game for Manchester City and is set to become a free agent this summer after the club decided not to offer him a new contract.
Serie A side Napoli have reportedly made an “important contract proposal” to De Bruyne, and they are said to be ready to finalize a deal at any moment.
Reports suggest Napoli’s offer includes a two-year contract worth around €7 million per season plus bonuses, with an option for a third year.
This comes despite his current Manchester City salary being significantly higher, with Italian tax benefits potentially making the net income more comparable. De Bruyne’s wife has reportedly even visited Naples to explore the city and potential residences.
Meanwhile, a bid from MLS club Chicago Fire, initially revealed in April, remains on the table.
The Fire are keen to bring the world-class midfielder to the United States, and with Inter Miami having filled their designated player spots, Chicago presents a strong MLS option.
De Bruyne has consistently stated that his decision will be a family matter, considering what makes the most sense for his wife and three young children.
He has acknowledged the financial opportunities presented by various leagues, including the Saudi Pro League, but his preference appears to be to continue playing at a high level.
The football world eagerly awaits the announcement of where one of the game’s greatest midfielders will embark on the next chapter of his illustrious career.
